I think the statement is a priori because it cannot be indisputedly a posteriori, particularly because the basis of the statement is a subjective evaluation rather than a definitive, objective conclusion.
You've done well, my son. My own reaction is that many Christian arguments (at a personal level, anyway) are a posteriori - ones that aren't just regurgitated from Sunday School but which have basis in one's own experiences.
And the same can be said of atheist arguments - maybe it's from personal experience or maybe it's just to argue against the church, make religious parents mad, reaction against strict upbringing, etc.
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I think the statement is a priori because it cannot be indisputedly a posteriori, particularly because the basis of the statement is a subjective evaluation rather than a definitive, objective conclusion.
Okay, what's my philosophy grade?
You've done well, my son. My own reaction is that many Christian arguments (at a personal level, anyway) are a posteriori - ones that aren't just regurgitated from Sunday School but which have basis in one's own experiences.
And the same can be said of atheist arguments - maybe it's from personal experience or maybe it's just to argue against the church, make religious parents mad, reaction against strict upbringing, etc.
Once more in English please. :-)
Heh.
A priori = before experience
A posteriori = after experience
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Well I went to your reference page and got a headache!
Is it like knowledge vs. education?
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